Smoking has bad social consequences, like drinking has bad social consequences. You suffer drinking in public. You are intolerant of smoking. Both occur casually in public places. There are laws addressing where to smoke and drink both. You are unsatisfied with only one of those. You therefore seek to eliminate the practice in your presence based solely on your personal preference when it is the express preference of the user and the establishment owner that they may do so. You then wish to assert your will on these two consenting parties agreement when you neither own, nor consume. I'm sure some will try to argue this point, but let's just say I catch the gist of it here.
If it is such a big issue for you personally why not just refuse to patronize the places that allow the thing you detest on their private property? This seems a reasonable thing to do to show your objection, and can have sufficient impact if applied correctly to alter the behavior you dislike. If you wish for smokers and restaurant owners to change with no compromise of your own and no skin in the game, then that would be outside the bounds of what is the basis of a free society, in my estimation.
Let's pretend you live in a free country, the question I am driving at in all of this would be: If two lawful, willing parties consent, on what grounds can you object?
This is me trying not to avoid any argumentum ad passiones or the like, I've seen throughout the thread, but especially not get the eyeball roll again.
